Who would have thought it? I've got everybody at Dentsply reading Wittgenstein. Curiously, we are having discussions including whether there is a pre-language, or if there are things in our physical makeup and environment obliging language to be a certain way.
We all agree with Wittgenstein about thought being limited by language (or perhaps limited to language). What he is saying seems like kind of a no-brainer today, although I did not understand him when I was in college. I suspect these philosophers were driven to extreme statements for social reasons.
My confusion has nothing to do with wanting to refute Wittgenstein. Instead, I just want to know if a logical incompatibility like "an object cannot be flat and spherical" comes from language or from something else.
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
No comments:
Post a Comment